I’ve written about this before, but since it’s so important, I’m posting about it again – in the form of screenshots from X and a little commentary of my own:
A few comments claim that this is not deliberate deception, but simply a clerical practice:
Let’s take this at face value. It makes no difference; either way, it means that we CANNOT use such statistics to point out how high “White” crime is – because it includes many criminals whose race is only officially “White,” but who are actually mestizo or black.
We find that most leftist/antiwhite arguments boil down to flawed logic. This is a case in point. Whether this phenomenon is technically legal or not makes little difference. The result is that “White” crime-rates are grotesquely inflated because of it.
It’s also important to point out that every claim has a counterclaim. There’s always somebody on the other side of the argument who should be defending the practice or policy.
My question is: Where are they? Why is it that we’ve been bringing this up literally for years, and (to the best of my knowledge) the only response, from official sources, has been silence?
When it looks like antiwhitism, and we’ve been screaming about it for so long, and all we get in response is silence, we must conclude that it’s deliberate antiwhitism – at some level. Otherwise, official sources would be defending themselves. We’d see articles about it in legacy media and “fact-checkers” would have tackled it. I’ve searched Snopes, and I’ve done several Google searches. No results came up.
There’s a concept in Judaic law: Shethiqa kehodhaya. It means “silence is agreement.”
